It wasn't the sin that the firstborns committed, it was two things: The sins committed by all Egyptians in denying God, and that the firstborns dying was the only way that Pharaoh would believe that God had something against him, since nine other plagues had done nothing to change his mind (Everything from dead cattle to boils to water becoming blood). The firstborns were all killed because Pharaoh refused to listen to anything else and continued to keep the Israelites in bondage. mariostar0001
I don't know if you're understanding the point of this line of questions.
Paul tells us in Romans 2:9-11 that, "There will be trouble and distress for every human being who does evil: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile; but glory, honor and peace for everyone who does good: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile. For God does not show favoritism."Â In other words, the only criteria for the treatment that one receives from God is directly based on the person's soul, not the person's status in life or any other such thing that concerns only humans.
We are further told that God "do(es) not change." (Malachi 3:6)Â In other words, if God is not a respecter of persons, then God has never been and will never be a respecter of persons.
Yet here we are told that God killed every firstborn in Egypt, and yet did not kill every other Egyptian, for no sin committed by the firstborn and only the firstborn, but rather for sins committed by others who did not receive the same fate. In other words, God killed the firstborn because of their human status, not because of what they specifically had done.
So, the obvious question arises, then: is it not true that God is not a respecter of persons, or is it not true that God does not change? These are mutually exclusive propositions; they cannot both be accepted at the same time.
This is not even mentioning the fact that Pharaoh refused to listen because God specifically prevented him from listening (Exodus 4:21, among others), either.
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