This is one of the key premises of the Kalam cosmological argument, the claim that the universe could not have existed for an infnite amount of time and that it therefore must have had a beginning. I'm not really interested in discussing whether or not the universe began as much as I am in discussing this premise.
So why do some say that an actual infinite is impossible? Well one point which I've heard fairly often is that if the universe did exist forever then we would have never reached the present point in time. Lets let our friend VenomFangX explain, just watch up to 0:48 to get the relevant bit. Or if you want a more credible source you can hear it from danwallacefan (yup that's him), watch from 1:05-2:08.
Ok go and watch the videos, I'll wait here.
Are you done? Allrighty I want to bring up a rebuttal to this claim. To me it seems very obvious but I've never heard anyone else use it which suggests that I either haven't looked hard enough or that I haven't fully thought this through.
Lets use VenomFang's example, if someone says to you that they will give you a chocolate bar after an infinite amount of time then you will never recieve that chocolate bar because you could never say that an infinite amount of time had passed. I would agree with this, saying that there is an end to infinity is directly contradicting its definition which is of course "without end".
There is one thing which seems to have slipped under the radar however. In this example the point in time in which the actual infinite ends cannot exist however the point in time in which the actual infinite began does indeed exist. We think of finite frames of time in terms of their beginnings (B)and their ends (E). The time it takes you to read this for example can be modeled by a beginning in time and an end in time:
B(you start reading)-------------------E(you finish reading).
With infinity though it seems to be a little different. There is a beginning followed by a period of time that never ends or an end which was preceded by a period of time that never began. Lets take the chocolate bar example again and model it:
B(I'll give you a chocolate bar after an infinite amount of time)-----------------------------(ad infinitum)
There was the beginning and an infinite period of time with no end. What about the following form of infinity, one that includes an end but no beginning.
(regress to infinity)-------------------------------------E(You read this topic during the present point in time)
This form of infinity is just as valid as the chocolate bar example, it only makes a beginning impossible rather than an end.
So what's the problem with VenomFangX and danwallacefan's arguments? They assume a beginning to their proposed infinite time frame. If we say that an actual infinite is beginningless however then it becomes perfectly possible to say that it has an end. In this way their arguments do not show that actual infinites are impossible, only that an actual infinite that has begun cannot end.
Tell me if that makes sense or not?
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